Errors in the Peshitta OT from the Leiden instittute.

[gbausc]

Shlama John,

Paul Younan has already addressed this many times. Dave Of Diego Garcia would know the answer if he had been paying attention.

Mark was writing to an audience of Aramaeans who spoke a dialect similar to that of Syria and southern Israel.There were very few differences in the spoken and written forms between that and the Galilean dialect of Northern Israel, which our Lord spoke. In this verse, the only difference in the two Aramaic dialects is the word for "My God" :"Ail" in Norhern dialect and "Alahi" in the southern dialect.
All other words in the recorded Aramaic are the same in both dialects.

This Gospel would have been readable in Syria as well as Palestine, and in Asia Minor as well, for all those countries were Aramaic speaking, and the written form of different dialects had far fewer differences that the spoken forms.

Now a question for you, John, (and Dave, who hangs on my every word):

Why does the Greek NT transliterate Aramaic phrases and words into Greek letters and then translate them into Greek seven times in Mark and John and Acts ? Over two hundred times Aramaic words are transliterated into all Greek mss. without translation or comment :
"Satana" (Satan), "Gehenna", "Bar" (Son), "Mammon", "Messiah", "Rabbi", "Beelzebub","Golgotha",Maranatha, "Raca","Belial","Corban",
"Cephas", "Gabbatha".

The Peshitta does not have Greek transliterated into Aramaic, which is what one would expect if Greek were the original for any of the books.Nor does the Aramaic text translate Greek phrases with transliterations like the Greek does Aramaic.

How can these things be, if Greek is the original and Aramaic the translation?

And why in the name of Sam Hill would some books be written in Greek and others in Aramaic ?

You do realize that all books were originally written for Aramaic speaking people, don't you ?
And all the key players in the Gospels and epistles spoke native Aramaic . Asia Minor,Israel, Syria, Assyria,Babylon, Samaria,Pontus,Cappadocia,Arabia,
Ephesus, Corinth, Thessalonica, Smyrna, etc. all had Aramaic as their native tongue and or Jews of the diaspora who spoke Aramaic and formed the mother churches for so many cities in the first century.
Even Rome had a Jewish Aramaic speaking group that formed the core of the Christian church. Paul calls them Jews, Romans 1:16, 2:10 , 3:9 ("Jews & Aramaeans") See Peshitta) Romans 1-11 assumes the audience knows the Law of Moses.Greeks would not have known it, neither would Italians.
1 Cor. 1:22-24 also repeats "Jews and Aramaeans". 1 Cor. 10:1 refers to ancient Israel as "our fathers" -"Brethren, I want you to know, our fathers were all under the cloud and all passed through the sea".
The Jewish people took their language of Aramaic with them when they were persecuted, from the time of the Babylonian Empire onward.

Greek became necessary for Gentiles of the Roman Empire who did not know Aramaic.Primarily those of Greece and Italy, Spain and France, Egypt, etc. For them , translations were made from the Aramaic. No original NT church Paul wrote to needed a Greek original. "Jews and Aramaeans" knew Aramaic just fine, and would not have been able to read Greek.

Burktha,


Rev. Dave