07-06-2005, 06:02 PM
We have Dave having a dispute with Dave, it is all very confusing.
Here's what I think of this mess:
Blogger Dave is trying to dispute the Aramaic NT primacy with how that would collide with christian dogma. The point is that - maybe christian dogma is based on interpretations of a false text!
I ask Blogger Dave: (and please read carefully, because it is obvious that you did not read my initial post here - which was related with the Leiden institute and their website)
Is'nt it obvious that Jesus spoke Aramaic:
Mark 15:34 ???And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani? which is, being interpreted, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me???? The same account is found Matthew 27:46
And if this is true, then is it at least possible that at least some of the new testament books were penned in Aramaic?
And I ask the other Dave - the non-blogger: Is it at least possible that some of the New testament texts were penned in Greek? For example: In the Peshitta NT, in one of the passeges of Jesus's cry on the cross, the translation of the meaning is preserved. Why would you translate the meaning of something if you are writing in that language?
Here's what I think of this mess:
Blogger Dave is trying to dispute the Aramaic NT primacy with how that would collide with christian dogma. The point is that - maybe christian dogma is based on interpretations of a false text!
I ask Blogger Dave: (and please read carefully, because it is obvious that you did not read my initial post here - which was related with the Leiden institute and their website)
Is'nt it obvious that Jesus spoke Aramaic:
Mark 15:34 ???And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani? which is, being interpreted, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me???? The same account is found Matthew 27:46
And if this is true, then is it at least possible that at least some of the new testament books were penned in Aramaic?
And I ask the other Dave - the non-blogger: Is it at least possible that some of the New testament texts were penned in Greek? For example: In the Peshitta NT, in one of the passeges of Jesus's cry on the cross, the translation of the meaning is preserved. Why would you translate the meaning of something if you are writing in that language?