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Ena na & Marya
#1
AKhi Paul,

Is "Ena na" simply "I am" or can it mean The "Ahiah" -("I AM") God's Name, from Exodus 3:14 ? If it ever had the meaning of God's unspeakable Name, how would it ever be used by anyone, angel or Aramaean, for himself , as apparently in Luke 1:19, 1 Cor. 15:9.
Did our Lord's testimony before Caiaphas the high priest
include God's name: "I AM The Living God", or no ? Could Caiaphas have interpreted it in that way ?
It occurs in The NT Peshitta 46 times, 24 of them in John's Gospel, most referring to Yeshua.

Burktha w'shlama,

Dave B
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#2
gbausc Wrote:AKhi Paul,

Is "Ena na" simply "I am" or can it mean The "Ahiah" -("I AM") God's Name, from Exodus 3:14 ? If it ever had the meaning of God's unspeakable Name, how would it ever be used by anyone, angel or Aramaean, for himself , as apparently in Luke 1:19, 1 Cor. 15:9.
Did our Lord's testimony before Caiaphas the high priest
include God's name: "I AM The Living God", or no ? Could Caiaphas have interpreted it in that way ?
It occurs in The NT Peshitta 46 times, 24 of them in John's Gospel, most referring to Yeshua.

Burktha w'shlama,

Dave B

Hi Dave,

Here is what Andrew Gabriel Roth (AGR) writes on the subject in Ruach Qadim (page 154):

Normally when an Aramaic speaker wished to refer to himself he would simply say ena (I). However, when it came to addressing the speech of the Almighty doing the same thing, the phrase Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh became Ena-na (I am).

At the end of the first sentence above, AGR has a text note (#105) which states, in part:

To give a total picture, though, it is true that Ena-na can, on occasion, be used by a man to refer to himself. In the Peshitta Tanakh, Joseph uses Ena-na as a way to emphasize to his brothers, "Yes, it really is me." Y'shua also uses Ena-na to refer to himself in a non-divine sense on one occasion in Matthew. However, the overwhelming trend was to avoid this usage because YHWH always uses this form of "I am" in Aramaic. Furthermore, the fact that the Jews try to stone Y'shua for his double use of Ena-na (I am) and Ena-ayti (I was) proves that they did interpret it in the divine matter.

Blessings and peace,
Wayne
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#3
Thank you ,Wayne. That makes excellent sense. This fact should be incorporated into a translation of The Peshitta in those many places in the NT where our Lord testifies of Himself, especially in His testimony under oath to the high priest: "I adjure thee by the Living God :
"Art Thou the Messiah, the Son of God ?" And Jesus, answering said: "I AM the Living God". Then the high priest , when he heard this, tore his garment
...."Mark 14:61-62 with Mathhew 26:63.

I love how The Peshitta brings out the blazing light of the Word of our Lord's testimony in so many places and the confession of Him by others as Yahweh (Lord God).

Blessings and Peace,

Dave
Get my NT translations, books & articles at :
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://aramaicnt.com">http://aramaicnt.com</a><!-- m --> and Lulu.com
I also have articles at BibleCodeDigest.com
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