02-13-2005, 08:43 PM
The Lector Wrote:Hello
I would like to ask a question please, sorry if this has been answered elsewhere and I missed it.
One of the major arguments I have heard used by Greek primacists is that Christ quotes the OT in the Greek NT word-for-word, which is apparently to show the accuracy of the Septuagint.
Even in greek Jesus does not quote the septuagint as this article by Proffessor Craig A evans demonstrates.
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Quote:Did Jesus recognize a specific text form of scripture? It does not appear so, for his usage of scripture is allusive, paraphrastic, and-so far as it can be ascertained-eclectic. We find agreement with the proto-Masoretic text, with the Hebrew under-lying the Septuagint (perhaps even the Septuagint itself), and with the Aramaic para-phrase. Several examples from each category will illustrate the phenomena. The examples that are chosen are the most obvious, in that they stand over against the readings in the other versions