Romans 1:17 query

[Paul Younan]

Dave,

The problem with your assumption is that you are using the mess of Greek variants, what you call the "Western Text", prior to the time THEY (the Greeks) standardized it based on the Peshitta.

Then you say "Aha! See, the Greek mess is older than the Greek standardization, therefore since the Peshitta is closer (but not close) to the Greek Standardization than it is to the Greek mess, that proves that the Peshitta MUST be based on it."

You've set up, a priori, a condition which is unknowable and unprovable.

It works just as well in my scenario. The Aramaic text, the original, was preserved among Aramaic-speakers. The Greek Mess (what you call "Western Texts") was a series of independent translations that turned out to be a big friggin mess (like your English versions today, which can't even agree with one another.)

Later, the Greeks standardized based on the ancient Aramaic. Walla!

All your Greek and Latin "fathers" can go to you know where, for all I care. What the hell do I care what version(s) they used? They had more Greek and Latin translations than you have English, and that's saying something. And none of these languages are what the Message was preached in, anyways.

Quit your dancing, and explain Acts 2:24 from your hypothesis. Then I'll be impressed. Right now, I'm not.

My standards are high, too. Start satisfying them by explaining Acts 2:24 - it's a simple one. We'll move on to harder examples after that.