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YHWH and Marya
#1
Shalama

When reciting + printing a verse from the Peshitta, would you say that it is acceptable to substitute the word Marya with Yahweh, seeing as that is what is meant?

Thanks
JS
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#2
Shlama John,

Very few English speaking people would know what "Marya" means, so, if you are referring to a translation in English, the answer is , "Yes". I would probably use the word "Jehovah", since it is better known than "Yahweh", but that depends on your audience and their religious background. Other translations that convey the meaning are: "The LORD" , "Lord God", "Lord Jah".

Blessings,

Dave
Get my NT translations, books & articles at :
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://aramaicnt.com">http://aramaicnt.com</a><!-- m --> and Lulu.com
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#3
What I mean is bro, what if I say this:

"Wa yahweh qara mosha"

if thats accurate <!-- s:lookround: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/lookround.gif" alt=":lookround:" title="Look Round" /><!-- s:lookround: -->

instead of "wa marya qara mosha"

Is this OK even though strictly speaking the text doesn't say yahweh [but means it?]

Shalama
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#4
"Yahweh" is not an Aramaic word; "Marya" is.
If your hearers understand "Yahweh", and not "Marya", then, by all means, use it.

Another way to present "Marya" is "Mar -Yah" ("Lord-Jah"), which is its derivation.

Shlama,

Dave
Get my NT translations, books & articles at :
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://aramaicnt.com">http://aramaicnt.com</a><!-- m --> and Lulu.com
I also have articles at BibleCodeDigest.com
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