11-08-2004, 11:49 PM
Perhaps you can explain to me why there is this variant in the Greek. bread/dinner in Luke 14:15. Do you think this is because of a literal translation and an idiomatic translation of "bread" being "Jewish" for "supper", just as "tea" is English for "supper"? Just a thought.
Regards,
Chris
Regards,
Chris
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