Question for Christopher Lancaster

[ograabe]

October 19, 2004

Dear Chris:

In your book "Was the New Testament Really Written in Greek?" you defend Peshitta primacy. However, several of your evidence citations involve the book of Revelation which is not part of the Peshitta. For example, on page 16 you cite an Aramaic word in Revelation 6:15 and on page 20 you cite an Aramaic word in Revelation 2:20.

Since there is no book of Revelation in the Peshitta and no primary Aramaic version of Revelation, what version are you using and why?

Thanks...

Otto

[byrnesey]

Hi there,

sorry for the late response, I have been tremendously busy over the last few weeks with work secular study and social things.

Yes I am a "Peshitta boy" but I do believe the Western 5 also have Aramaic originals, even if the current Aramaic versions of them are not the originals. It is the same with the Hebrew OT, we all believed there were Hebrew originals even in the days when the LXX reigned supreme.

For Rev I usuallu use Peshitto Rev / Crawford Rev.

Regards,

Chris

p.s. Basically while I am Peshitta primacy believer, I also believe Western 5 have Aramaic originals and hold the Peshitto in great esteem also.

[ograabe]

THANKS,

Otto