John 1:13

[judge]

John 1:13 "Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God." (KJV)


Apparently there is evidence of variant texts here which read "Which was born of God. Tertullian refers to one, (de carne Christi, 19 & 24) as does Iraneus (Adv. Haer. III, 16,2 ; 19,2) and the Old Latin manuscript 'b' (Veronensis).

Could this verse read either way in Aramaic?

[judge]

John 1:13 "Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God." (KJV)


Apparently there is evidence that of variant texts here which read "Which was born of God." Tertullian refers to one, (de carne Christi, 19 & 24) as does Iraneus (Adv. Haer. III, 16,2 ; 19,2) and the Old Latin manuscript 'b' (Veronensis).

Could this verse read either way in Aramaic?

[gbausc]

Shlama Judge,

The answer is no. [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]wdlyt0 .....Nyly0[/font] "those... born" are both plural
words.

Blessings,


Dave