06-23-2004, 05:48 PM
Shlama Akhi Ivan,
Aramaic and Hebrew are very close. The most striking similiarity is the shared roots, even when the words are conjugated with different prefixes or different suffixes. For instance, in Hebrew to say "peoples" you would say "Amim" and in Aramaic "Ame". You see, the root is the same but the suffix for the plural is different. If you know what differences to look for, you can be fluent in both if you already know one.
For translation purposes, it is impossible to be exact 100% because even languages as close as Hebrew and Aramaic are tend to have shades of meaning that are unique. This is even true of different dialects of Aramaic, where walking to the next village 5 miles away they have different shades of meaning and different expressions. But I would say between Hebrew and Aramaic you can achive 90-95% exactness in translation if you are well-versed in both, whereas from either language to Greek (for instance) you can only get about 70-80% exactness (at best.)
Yes, the Greek versions of the NT struggled with the singular/plural of the Aramaic. At least Hebrew has a marker "-im" for the plural, whereas written Aramaic does not. You see many examples on our forum where one Greek version has singular and the other Greek manuscript has plural for the same word. This is a dead give-way that the Greek was translated from the Aramaic (not Hebrew) New Testament.
Ivan Pavlovich Ostapyuk Wrote:Paul, do not be disappointed,
They are just translations, and it makes us treasure more and more the Aramaic NT Peshitta original.
Well, let me discuss one more point. The Hebrew and Aramaic are sister languages. What is the percentage of exactness of translation transmission of the text?
I was born in Ukraine, and am fluent in both Ukrainian and Russian. They are sister languages too. The both languages have words with close pronunciations and with completely different pronunciations but their meanings are 100% same. As much as I can imagine now, it is possible to translate one language into the other with 100% exactness.
What about Hebrew and Aramaic? What is their translation transmission exactness percentage? For example, the Aramaic singular and plural words are written alike but pronounced differently. How did the Greek versions deal with this? At least this point makes the Aramaic original to be irreplaceable!!!
Many Hebrew language lovers will not like this expression. So, what is Your point of view?
Ivan.
Aramaic and Hebrew are very close. The most striking similiarity is the shared roots, even when the words are conjugated with different prefixes or different suffixes. For instance, in Hebrew to say "peoples" you would say "Amim" and in Aramaic "Ame". You see, the root is the same but the suffix for the plural is different. If you know what differences to look for, you can be fluent in both if you already know one.
For translation purposes, it is impossible to be exact 100% because even languages as close as Hebrew and Aramaic are tend to have shades of meaning that are unique. This is even true of different dialects of Aramaic, where walking to the next village 5 miles away they have different shades of meaning and different expressions. But I would say between Hebrew and Aramaic you can achive 90-95% exactness in translation if you are well-versed in both, whereas from either language to Greek (for instance) you can only get about 70-80% exactness (at best.)
Yes, the Greek versions of the NT struggled with the singular/plural of the Aramaic. At least Hebrew has a marker "-im" for the plural, whereas written Aramaic does not. You see many examples on our forum where one Greek version has singular and the other Greek manuscript has plural for the same word. This is a dead give-way that the Greek was translated from the Aramaic (not Hebrew) New Testament.
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
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