05-29-2004, 07:35 PM
Shlama all--
Akhi Paul, glad to see you translating again!
I noticed something though that I have been meaning to comment on for some time. Every once in a while we hit a place where the Peshitta omits a a familar reading (from the Greek Western viewpoint that is). Such is the case with Acts 15:34.
Now, let's keep in mind what the majority "scholarship" says, that the Greek is the original. Also, at this point in Acts, there is no Old Syriac red-herring to show the Peshitta revised from, as if that matters now, with EVANGELION D'MEPHARASHE stamped on every page of Siniaticus. Even so, ask most Zorbans when they think ANY part of the Peshitta was revised from Old Syriac to agree with the Greek and the usual answer is about the fourth century.
Well, if so, how do they explain that Acts 15:34 is MISSING from both the earliest Greek mss (Aleph, A and B) AND the Peshitta? Why didn't the Peshitta pick up the revisions if it was revised to align with the Byzantine texts fifth century and later? Similarly, John 8:1-11 is missing from Aleph (fourth century) and B (also fourth century).
Seems to me the Peshitta supports the earliest readings here and elsewhere, and not the revised readings of families it was alegedly altered to agree with.
Just my two cents.
Akhi Paul, glad to see you translating again!
I noticed something though that I have been meaning to comment on for some time. Every once in a while we hit a place where the Peshitta omits a a familar reading (from the Greek Western viewpoint that is). Such is the case with Acts 15:34.
Now, let's keep in mind what the majority "scholarship" says, that the Greek is the original. Also, at this point in Acts, there is no Old Syriac red-herring to show the Peshitta revised from, as if that matters now, with EVANGELION D'MEPHARASHE stamped on every page of Siniaticus. Even so, ask most Zorbans when they think ANY part of the Peshitta was revised from Old Syriac to agree with the Greek and the usual answer is about the fourth century.
Well, if so, how do they explain that Acts 15:34 is MISSING from both the earliest Greek mss (Aleph, A and B) AND the Peshitta? Why didn't the Peshitta pick up the revisions if it was revised to align with the Byzantine texts fifth century and later? Similarly, John 8:1-11 is missing from Aleph (fourth century) and B (also fourth century).
Seems to me the Peshitta supports the earliest readings here and elsewhere, and not the revised readings of families it was alegedly altered to agree with.
Just my two cents.
Shlama w'burkate
Andrew Gabriel Roth
Andrew Gabriel Roth