03-18-2004, 03:06 PM
Shlama Akhi Michael,
The second occurance merely has a Lamed proclitic prepended to the word itself. It's just an object marker for the verb ("left Nazareth"). I don't think this would have contributed to any confusion on Zorba's part - since this is a common literary convention in Aramiac.
The second occurance merely has a Lamed proclitic prepended to the word itself. It's just an object marker for the verb ("left Nazareth"). I don't think this would have contributed to any confusion on Zorba's part - since this is a common literary convention in Aramiac.
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan