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Help! Question about Hebrew vs Aramaic primacy via examples.
Bivin and Blizzard cite the following examples as evidence that the NT, at least the gospels through part of Acts, was written in Hebrew:

Use of ochloi in NT Greek (???multitudes???) is a transliteration of Hebrew ochlosim, ???the people of a locality??? (16).

Luke 10:9??????The kingdom of God {has arrived}.??? (The Greek verb engiken translates the Hebrew idiomatic verb karav, ???come near,??? which means ???come and be with??? or ???be where something or someone else is.???)

Tzedekah (???righteousness???) is a Hebraic synonym for ???salvation???:

Matthew 6:33??????Seek first His kingdom and His {salvation}??????
Matthew 5:6??????Blessed are they who hunger and thirst for

???Judgment??? is also a Hebraic synonym for ???salvation???:

Matthew 12:8??????Here is my servant???. And he will proclaim
{salvation} to the Gentiles.???

Matthew 5:42a??????Give to him who asks you for a loan, and do not refuse him who wishes to borrow from you.??? (Hebrew verb ???ask??? is synonym for ???borrow,??? as it is used here in Hebrew poetic couplet form. The words here are not repetitive, but one refers to borrowing an item to be returned and the other to replacing an item "lent" that has been used up, like money or a cup of flour.)

Matthew 5:10??????Blessed are they who pursue salvation, for of such is the kingdom of heaven.??? (???Persecute??? is a mistranslation of the Hebrew verb radaf, tzedekah or ???righteousness??? is idiomatic for ???salvation,??? and ???of such??? parallels the correct translation of the same word in Luke 18:16.)

Luke 12:49-50??????I am come??? is idiomatic Hebrew for ???My purpose is??? (and as used elsewhere): ???{My purpose is} to send fire on the earth; but how could I wish it were already burned up? But I have a baptism to give, and how distressed I am till it is over!??? A parallel to Matthew 3:11 (???He will baptize you . . . with fire???), structured as Hebrew poetry, as a repetitive couplet of judgment and regret, judgment and regret; the Greek aorist elthon, ???come,??? renders the Hebrew past. See also Luke 19:10. The Hebrew word ???what??? also can mean ???how,??? as Greek kai can mean ???but,??? which completes the couplet.

Matthew 5:20???Pun, play on double-meaning of tzedekah (???righteousness???), which had come to be synonymous with ???almsgiving??? (as a redemptive act of righteousness).

Luke 6:22???Hebraic idiom ???cast not your name evil??? means ???Malign you.???

So, what I would like to know is whether the above examples work just as well in Aramaic, and correct the Greek or English just as well, as the authors claim the Hebrew does. Can anyone help me with this matter?

Messages In This Thread
Help! Question about Hebrew vs Aramaic primacy via examples. - by Taufgesinnter - 10-11-2003, 11:17 AM
[No subject] - by Paul Younan - 10-11-2003, 02:42 PM
[No subject] - by Taufgesinnter - 10-11-2003, 05:29 PM
[No subject] - by Paul Younan - 10-11-2003, 07:31 PM
[No subject] - by Taufgesinnter - 10-11-2003, 07:38 PM
. - by drmlanc - 10-11-2003, 11:02 PM
[No subject] - by Taufgesinnter - 10-12-2003, 12:16 AM
Hi Tauf! - by judge - 10-12-2003, 04:44 AM
[No subject] - by Taufgesinnter - 10-12-2003, 05:22 PM
Hey Tauf, how's it going? - by The Thadman - 10-13-2003, 04:55 PM
[No subject] - by Taufgesinnter - 10-13-2003, 09:53 PM

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