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Mattai 1:21 & Luqa 1:31 - who named the child?
Paul Younan Wrote:Shlama Akhay,

In the Aramaic of Mattai 1:21 - we read:

Quote:"And she will bear a son, and she will call his name Yeshua; for he will save his people from their sins."


This creates a considerable contradiction in the Greek texts - for it is not Yosef who named the child, but Maryam (Luqa 1:31)

A special thanks to Dave for pointing out this wonderful mistranslation and contradiction which is solved by the Peshitta! <!-- s:biggrin: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/biggrin.gif" alt=":biggrin:" title="Big Grin" /><!-- s:biggrin: -->

I was reading the first chapter of Mattai and I think one does not even have to go to Luqa to justify choosing "she" in verse 21 of Peshitta (but Luqa 1:31 is still needed to see the contradiction in Greek). If I'm reading Aramaic correctly, in verse 25 the person is specified as "she". Now the argument for "she" in verse 21 is even stronger, if we had "he" in verse 21 of Peshitta we would have a contradiction on the same page - Yosef is told to name the child and a moment later (I mean a couple of lines later) Maryam does it. Well, one could argue for flexibility, they are one as a couple so does it really matter which part does the job, but that is not convincing, the Scripture is not written in a sloppy way.

By the way, I think that Greek "ekalesen" in verse 25 is a third person singular Aoristus and can be translated into English either way, he or she. "She" would be more reasonable to me as this is an action closer to the second subject but obviously KJV and other English translations made the wrong choice (I'm wondering why) and translated it as "and he named him".

Just my 2p. But the contradiction is considerable indeed, thank you all for all those observations about contradictions showing mistranslations.


Messages In This Thread
. - by drmlanc - 10-07-2003, 02:46 AM
. - by drmlanc - 10-22-2003, 05:03 AM
Re: Mattai 1:21 & Luqa 1:31 - who named the child? - by enarxe - 04-30-2008, 02:42 AM

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