02-27-2010, 09:28 AM
Is it possible that Matti (possibly being Judean as opposed to Galilean or Assyrian) was familiar with a different variant of psalm 110 , and different dialectical peculiarities WRT the use of these terms ?
As I alluded to earlier wasnt this part of psalm 110 subject to some hand altering it is some textual traditions?
Wasn't adonai inserted in one tradition to "clear things up".
Perhaps the variations we see in the NT peshitta are a function of this same kind of process, in pre NT times?
As I alluded to earlier wasnt this part of psalm 110 subject to some hand altering it is some textual traditions?
Wasn't adonai inserted in one tradition to "clear things up".
Perhaps the variations we see in the NT peshitta are a function of this same kind of process, in pre NT times?