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book of Hebrews: better from Greek, or Aramaic?
"I have heard the gospel of Matthew was written first in Arabic"
Aramaic.
Aramaic is a sister language of Hebrew. Much if not all of Daniel was originally in Aramaic; 5+ chapters in Daniel and over 1 chapter in Ezra (plus 2 words in Genesis 31:47 and words in Jeremiah 10:11) is to this day Aramaic.
Arabic developed from Aramaic.

"but the new testament was written in koine Greek that is the overall consensus"
It's an erroneous consensus that flies in the face of the textual evidence. Yes, Peshitta Primacy is a minority opinion. Manuscript guy Daniel Wallace booted me from his blog's comments section for making pro-Aramaic arguments. The Church of the East says that its Peshitta NT books came directly from their authors in Aramaic, and they've been carefully recopying them through the years. They did a much better job of recopying through the years than what's seen in the Greek mss. transmission tradition, which has a morass of conflicting readings.

A link near the bottom of
wikipedia .org/wiki/Aramaic_original_New_Testament_theory
goes to the book
_Was the New Testament Really Written in Greek?: A Concise Compendium of the Many Internal and External Evidences of Aramaic Peshitta Primacy_
https://pdfslide .net/documents/aramaic-peshitta-primacy-2008.html

A) Special Features of the Aramaic Peshitta New Testament
B) Mistranslations/ Mistransmissions/ Missed Translations/ Additions to/ Corruptions in Greek Manuscripts, Contrasted with the Original Aramaic
C) Semitic Idioms in Greek NT Mss.
https://groups.google .com/g/aus.religion.islam/c/bzdQCJTVhyk/m/SdGP_f82uUoJ

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Luke 23:56 explicitly says the women rested on the Sabbath:
Luke 23:56 (YLT) and having turned back, they made ready spices and ointments, and on the sabbath, indeed, they rested, according to the command.

Mark 16:1-3 explicitly says the foray to anoint occurred _after_ the Sabbath, i.e. after the day of rest. The Greek mss.'s "sabbaths" in verse 2 can't mean Sabbath, because verse 1 says the Sabbath was over:
Mark 16 (YLT), biblehub
1 And the sabbath having past, Mary the Magdalene, and Mary of James, and Salome, bought spices, that having come, they may anoint him, 2 and early in the morning of the first of the sabbaths, they come unto the sepulchre, at the rising of the sun, 3 and they said among themselves, 'Who shall roll away for us the stone out of the door of the sepulchre?'
By the way, the Greek Mk 16:2 has a mistranslation of the original Aramaic.
_Our Translated Gospels: Some of the Evidence_ (1936), 172pp. by Charles Cutler Torrey. On 70-73:
Exhibit XIII. The Redundant "and."
A. Mk. 16:2-4 And very early on the first day of the week they came to the tomb. When the sun had risen, and they were saying among themselves, Who will roll for us the stone from the entrance of the tomb? [_and_] they looked, and saw that the stone was rolled back; and it was very great.
....
Exhibit XIII, A (Mk. 16:2-4). Both Mt. and Lk. declare that the women came to the tomb of Jesus while it was yet dark; and this is the time that they would naturally have chosen for their arrival. Mk., on the contrary, is made by our Grk. to say that they came _very early in the morning, after the sun had risen!_ That which caused this utterly absurd saying was the presence of the redundant "and," which the Grk. translator failed to recognize. The place of beginning the conclusion of the sentence is formally ambiguous, it might be either vs. 3 or vs. 4; but the latter place, with its startling announcement, is the one which received the emphasis.
....
Some of the cases listed above would ordinarily call forth no comment. The unnecessary particle is hardly noticed, especially in texts fairly bristling with "and". In the majority of the passages cited here the reader, if disturbed at all, sees only a certain awkwardness of expression. Such cases could not be classed as mistranslations, nor are they quite "impossible" Greek. The use of this conjunction to introduce the apodosis, after a temporal protasis, has its examples in Homer, for instance.

Nevertheless the presence of a strange idiom in the Gospels is unmistakable in view of the evidence here presented, and in several passages its recognition clears away a serious difficulty. Here, obviously and beyond all question, is the explanation of the _absurdity_ in Mk. 16:2, now completely removed, and removable in no other way. The misunderstanding which resulted in putting into the mouth of Jesus an impossible saying in Jn. 20:17 is fully explained. In each of the two passages the Grk. is certainly the result of mistranslation of an Aram. text. In Jn. 1:19 f. perfect clearness is substituted for intolerable confusion. The other cases are chiefly important as examples of the idiom.

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Josh Willis "apparently they came but he was gone as the story goes so they didn't right ?"
Right.

"Your question is therefore irrelevant on what the women would of done or not done on a sabbath he was gone"
Simply carrying the spices to the tomb could be construed as work, and would have been avoided on the day of rest, the Sabbath.

Luke 14 (Aramaic Bible in Plain English)
1 And it was that when he entered the house of one of the leaders of the Pharisees to eat bread on the Sabbath day, and they were observing him, 2 Behold, one man who was swollen with fluid was there before him. 3 And Yeshua answered and said to the Scribes and to the Pharisees, "Surely it is legal to heal on the Sabbath." 4 But they were silent, and he held him and healed him and he dismissed him. 5 And he said to them, "Who of you, whose son or ox should fall in a pit on the Sabbath day, would not at once pull and lift him out?" 6 And they could not give him an answer to this.

"sabbaton is not an idiom for week... the day before was the great day of the feast John 19.31"

John 19:31 (NIV) Now it was the day of Preparation, and the next day was to be a special Sabbath. Because the Jewish leaders did not want the bodies left on the crosses during the Sabbath, they asked Pilate to have the legs broken and the bodies taken down.

What's your timeline? (day of Preparation, then the Sabbath day, and while on the Sabbath day of rest a trip carrying spices to do annointing work?)
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RE: book of Hebrews: better from Greek, or Aramaic? - by DavidFord - 08-30-2020, 12:53 AM

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