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book of Hebrews: better from Greek, or Aramaic?
Do you think "deuteroproto" represents something originally in Luke 6:1?
Do you know what it means? 

Luke 6:1 - On the Sabbath, Jesus walked through the corn, while his disciples plucked ears and rubbed them with their hands and ate them.
       On the Sabbath, Jesus walked - literally, "It happened on the Sabbath that Jesus ... walked." In the Greek MHT and TR we find the lecture: "On the Sabbath the second-first it happened that Jesus ...". In the Greek NA28 the words 'the second-first' are missing. The Greek word 'deuteroproto' is not to be found in any other Greek writing and seems to be an artificial term. Others believe or argue (ia Benson Commentary ›) that it was a Jewish-Greek term for the Sabbaths of the Feast of Unleavened Bread after the Sabbath day that immediately followed the slaughter of the Voorbijbijoffer or Passover. In the Aramaic Peshitta it simply says: 'On the Sabbath'.

(Lk 6:1 didn't make it into the Diatessaron.)

Lk PDF at http://www.willker.de/wie/TCG/
TVU 75
29. Difficult variant
NA28 Luke 6:1 ....
BYZ Luke 6:1 ....
T&T #8
Byz A, C, D, R, X, D, Q, Y, f13, 892, Maj, Lat(a, aur, d, f, ff2, vg), Sy-H, goth, Gre
Lat = sabbato secundoprimo

txt P4(200 CE), P75vid, 01, B, L, W, f1, 69, 788(=f13), 22, 33, 157, 579, 1241, 2542, pc8, it(b, c, e, l, q, r1), Sy-P, Sy-Hmg, Sy-Pal, Co
pc = 588, 697, 791, 1005, 1210, 1365, 2372, 2670
....
A real mystery. The word occurs nowhere else (M.A. Robinson notes the titles of
several psalms, which also contain similar references of (today) unknown
meaning). The reading is normally considered as originating through some
strange scribal blunder. But the given explanations are quite unsatisfactory. The
best is that of Skeat who thinks of a dittography ...., which was
subsequently interpreted as .... Another explanation is that.... 
It remains strange. If the word is correct, it must have been borrowed from
something in the Jewish calendar, and should have been generally known. Then
there would be no reason for an omission. 
It might additionally be noted that .... is visually and acoustically
similar to the following word ....

===================================================
Do you think Luke 6:4 originally had "on the table of the Lord"?

Luke 6:4 - How he entered the house of GOD and took the (show) bread on the table of the Lord, which no one should eat except the priests, and eaten (it) also to those who were with him goods?"
       on the table of the Lord - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The words are completely missing in the reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR.

(Lk 6:4 didn't make it into the Diatessaron.)

===================================================
Do you think Luke 6:12 originally had "Jesus"? 

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "Jesus."

Luke 6:12 - In those days Jesus went out to a mountain to pray. He stayed there all night praying to GOD.
       In those days ... - in full: "And it happened in those days ..."
       Jesus - the name is part of the text of the Aramaic Peshitta, but is missing from the reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR.

Diatessaron 8:9 
And in those days Jesus went out to the mountain that he might pray, and he spent the night there in prayer to God. 

===================================================
Do you think Luke 7:13 originally said:  "Jesus"?  "Lord"?
(if 'Jesus':  do you think 'Lord' was a theological embellishment in Greek mss.?)

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "Jesus."

Luke 7:13 - Jesus saw her and took pity on her and said to her, "Don't cry!"
       Jesus - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: 'Lord' (‹Kurios›).
       Don't cry - it probably means "Stop crying," because it is likely that the woman was already crying.

Diatessaron 11:19
And when Jesus saw her, he had compassion on her, and said unto her, Weep not. 

===================================================
Do you think Luke 7:19 originally said: 
"with him"?
"Jesus"?
(if you think it originally had 'Jesus,' do you think 'Lord' was a theological embellishment in some Greek mss.?)

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "Jesus," while neither have "with him."

Luke 7:19 - (Then) John called two of his disciples (with him) and sent them to Jesus and (made them) say, "Is it it that is to come, or should we expect another?"
       with them - we find these words only in the Greek NA28, MHT and TR.
       Jesus - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta, the MHT and TR. The reading of the Greek NA28 reads: 'the Lord' (‹Kurios›).

Diatessaron 13:39
And when John heard in the prison of the doings of the Messiah, he called two of his disciples, and sent them to Jesus, and said, Art thou he that cometh, or look we for another?
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RE: book of Hebrews: better from Greek, or Aramaic? - by DavidFord - 05-23-2020, 02:14 PM

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