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book of Hebrews: better from Greek, or Aramaic?
For Luke 19:9, do you think Jesus originally literally said:
"salvation has come"?  "life has come"?
(if "life has come":  do you consider "salvation has come" a theological/doctrinal embellishment?)

Luke 19:9 
https://biblehub.com/luke/19-9.htm
http://dukhrana.com 
(Berean Literal) And Jesus said to him, "Today salvation has come to this house, because he also is a son of Abraham.
(Young's Literal) And Jesus said unto him -- 'To-day salvation did come to this house, inasmuch as he also is a son of Abraham;
(KJV) And Jesus said unto him, This day is salvation come to this house, forsomuch as he also is a son of Abraham.

(Aramaic Bible in Plain English) Yeshua said to him, “Today, The Life has come to this house, because This One also is The Son of Abraham.”
(Murdock) Jesus said to him: This day, life is to this house; for he also is a son of Abraham.

When Luke 5:20 was originally written, did it say:
"the paralytic"?
merely "him"?

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "the paralytic."

Luke 5:20 - When Jesus saw their faith, He said to the paralytic, "Man, your sins are forgiven!"
the paralytic - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. In the reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR it says: 'him'.

Diatessaron 7:16
And when Jesus saw their faith, he said unto the paralytic, My son, thy sins are forgiven thee.
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RE: book of Hebrews: better from Greek, or Aramaic? - by DavidFord - 05-20-2020, 02:39 AM

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