Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
book of Hebrews: better from Greek, or Aramaic?
When Lk 4:23 was originally written, did it have:
"perhaps/ haply"?
"undoubtedly/ certainly"?

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "perhaps/ haply."

Luke 4:23 - Jesus said to them, “Perhaps you would like to say this proverb to Me: 'Doctor, heal Yourself, for we have heard all that You have done in Capernaum. Do that (also) here in your (own) city.'”
perhaps - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The Greek NA28, MHT and TR read: 'undoubtedly' or: 'certainly'.

Diatessaron 17:42
And Jesus knew their opinion, and said unto them, Will ye haply^2 say unto me this proverb, Physician, heal first thyself: and all that we have heard that thou didst in Capernaum, do here also in thine own city?
2: _cf_. ... 4:24, note.
Note to 4:24: Our translator constantly uses this Arabic word (which we render _haply_, or, _can it be?_ or _perhaps_ etc.) to represent the Syriac word used in this place. The latter is used in various ways, and need not be interrogative, as our translator renders it....
Reply


Messages In This Thread
RE: book of Hebrews: better from Greek, or Aramaic? - by DavidFord - 05-19-2020, 12:54 PM

Forum Jump:


Users browsing this thread: 5 Guest(s)