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book of Hebrews: better from Greek, or Aramaic?
For Mk 14:24, is the sense better rendered in English with:
"for many"?
"for everybody"?

CVB Mk 14:24 He said to them,
“This is my blood of the covenant,
which is poured out for many.

_The Eucharistic Words of Jesus_ by Joachim Jeremias (1966), 278pp., 179-182
https://www.amazon.com/Eucharistic-Words...334004144/
14.24, πολλῶν ('many'). While 'many' in Greek (as in English) stands in opposition to 'all', and therefore has the exclusive sense ('_many, but not all_'), Hebrew _rabbim_ can have the inclusive sense ('_the whole, comprising many individuals_'). This inclusive use is connected with the fact that Hebrew and Aramaic possess no word for 'all'. ....

In the New Testament, Rom. 5.15 is the clearest example for this inclusive use of οἱ πολλοὶ.
'For if many (οἱ πολλοὶ) died through one man's trespass,
much more have the grace of God and the free gift in the grace
of that one man Jesus Christ abounded for many (εἰς τοὺς πολλοὺς).'
Here the meaning of οἱ πολλοὶ as 'all men' is secured not only by the double contrast with 'the one', but also by the meaning: 'the many died' must mean 'all men died' (οἱ πολλοὶ in 5.15a = πάντες ἄνθρωποί in 5.12 = πάντες in I Cor. 15.22). The same holds true for Rom. 5.19.... Further, cf. Mark 9.26... Rom. 12.5... I Cor. 10.17a... 1 Cor. 10.33... Heb. 12.15.... It is used adjectivally in Luke 7.47....

When IV Ezra 8.3 reads
_multi quidem creati sunt,
pauci autem salvabuntur_
('Many have been created,
but few shall be saved', RSV),
the first clause 'many have been created' obviously embraces _all_ men; similarly the anarthous πολλοὶ in the strictly analogously constructed sentence 'For many (πολλοὶ) are called, but few are chosen' (Matt. 22.14) is to be understood inclusively as 'all'. The first clause, πολλοὶ γάρ εἰσιν κλητοὶ 'for all are called (to the salvation meal)', does not speak therefore of God's selection by predestination, but of the boundlessness of his invitation. That may be the solution to this _crux interpretum_! ....
Rom 4.17-18.... Gen. 17.5.... II Cor. 1.11.... Mark 10.45.... Isa. 53.10-12.... I Tim. 2.6....
Just as Mark 10.45, so also our passage Mark 14.24 is to be interpreted _in the inclusive sense_.
πολλῶν is therefore a semitism.
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RE: book of Hebrews: better from Greek, or Aramaic? - by DavidFord - 03-29-2020, 10:27 PM

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