09-05-2016, 08:13 PM
In Matthew 12:21 in the Peshitta, it reads:
ܘܒܫܡܗ ܥܡܡܐ ܢܣܒܪܘܢ
"And in His Name the Nations will hope."
This is a direct quote by the Apostle Matthew from Isaiah 42:4b
The Peshitta OT for Isaiah 42:4b, reads thus:
ܘܠܢܡܘܣܗ ܓܙܪ̈ܬܐ ܢܣ̈ܟܝܢ
"And unto His Law the Islands will look."
We know that the Peshitta OT is a translation of the Hebrew OT text.
The Hebrew OT text for Isaiah 42:4b, reads thus:
ולתורתו איים ייחלו
"unto His Law the Islands will wait."
The Greek translation of the OT (Septuagint), reads thus:
και επί τω ονόματι αυτού έθνη ελπιούσιν
"And upon His Name the Nations will hope."
Q: If The Apostle Matthew wasn't quoting from the Greek translation of the OT, then where did he get his quotaton from?
His quotation does not match either the Hebrew, or the Peshitta translation of the Hebrew OT for Isaiah 42:4.
It matches the Greek translation of the Hebrew OT for Isaiah 42:4.
Any help on this would be appreciated.
Shlama
ܘܒܫܡܗ ܥܡܡܐ ܢܣܒܪܘܢ
"And in His Name the Nations will hope."
This is a direct quote by the Apostle Matthew from Isaiah 42:4b
The Peshitta OT for Isaiah 42:4b, reads thus:
ܘܠܢܡܘܣܗ ܓܙܪ̈ܬܐ ܢܣ̈ܟܝܢ
"And unto His Law the Islands will look."
We know that the Peshitta OT is a translation of the Hebrew OT text.
The Hebrew OT text for Isaiah 42:4b, reads thus:
ולתורתו איים ייחלו
"unto His Law the Islands will wait."
The Greek translation of the OT (Septuagint), reads thus:
και επί τω ονόματι αυτού έθνη ελπιούσιν
"And upon His Name the Nations will hope."
Q: If The Apostle Matthew wasn't quoting from the Greek translation of the OT, then where did he get his quotaton from?
His quotation does not match either the Hebrew, or the Peshitta translation of the Hebrew OT for Isaiah 42:4.
It matches the Greek translation of the Hebrew OT for Isaiah 42:4.
Any help on this would be appreciated.
Shlama