05-22-2015, 11:08 PM
Great day everybody,
It has been pointed out that the word "Arabia" is spelled with an aleph instead of an ayin in Peshitta Gal 1:17 and 4:25, and that this is a mistake that a Jewish scribe would never make. All the Tanakh versions (MT, PT, Targums) spell "Arabia" with an ayin, so is this a mistake in the Peshitta or evidence for translation / transliteration from the Greek spelling of "Arabia"?
Grace and peace,
Thomas
It has been pointed out that the word "Arabia" is spelled with an aleph instead of an ayin in Peshitta Gal 1:17 and 4:25, and that this is a mistake that a Jewish scribe would never make. All the Tanakh versions (MT, PT, Targums) spell "Arabia" with an ayin, so is this a mistake in the Peshitta or evidence for translation / transliteration from the Greek spelling of "Arabia"?
Grace and peace,
Thomas