Query in favour of Greek

[Burning one]

Shlama Searcher,


I would direct you to the polysemy evidences collected in the study shared at the following link:

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The Aramaic Peshitta NT shows exactly the same type of Janus Parallel as the Hebrew. What does the Greek show? Nothing. Why not? Would you dare assert that a translation of a source-text could viably possess more depth than the source-text itself? Is information ever lost or gained in the process of translating from one language to another?

Please refute these examples from the link based on a textual evidence basis. If you cannot, you have some viable evidence for Aramaic Primacy.


Blessings,
Jeremy