10-28-2014, 01:10 AM
Erm... /ya/ is simply very common in Aramaic. It ends every gentillic, it ends every masculine emphatic plural in older dialects, it begins certain Aphel verbal forms, it appears all over the place.
Those "examples" you cite aren't the kind of wordplay that was understood as wordplay in ancient times. If we were discussing rootplay or some sort of acrostic that would be one thing, but this is simply cherry-picked from a random distribution, and some of them don't even represent the sound /ya/.
Also -- and I must preface this in that it is a pet peeve of mine -- there is zero documentary evidence that Jesus' name was "Yahshua" (or Yahushua or Yahusha or several other variants that some insist upon). In Hebrew it was Yehoshua in Aramaic it was Yeshua or Y'shua (the apostrophe representing shwa). There was no open vowel in the initial syllable. To do so would violate very well-studied and established conventions.
Peace,
-Steve
Those "examples" you cite aren't the kind of wordplay that was understood as wordplay in ancient times. If we were discussing rootplay or some sort of acrostic that would be one thing, but this is simply cherry-picked from a random distribution, and some of them don't even represent the sound /ya/.
Also -- and I must preface this in that it is a pet peeve of mine -- there is zero documentary evidence that Jesus' name was "Yahshua" (or Yahushua or Yahusha or several other variants that some insist upon). In Hebrew it was Yehoshua in Aramaic it was Yeshua or Y'shua (the apostrophe representing shwa). There was no open vowel in the initial syllable. To do so would violate very well-studied and established conventions.
Peace,
-Steve