02-03-2014, 03:35 AM
Why did Lamsa translate "l'mana shabaqthani" differently in Psalm 22.1 from how he translated it in the Gospels? How did he arrive at "why hast thou let me to live?" I presume he used the Psalm 22.1 reading in this book, and I know of no other Peshitta reading of this passage: http://www.amazon.com/Aramaic-Old-Testam..._1?ie=UTF8