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A problem for Aramaic Primacy? Matthew 28:18
This is a very interesting comment! Thanks.

Does this suggest that Matthew's Gospel was written in Hebrew and then translated into Aramaic and Greek? - The Peshitta interpolating the phrase into Matthew from John's Gospel? - The interpolation would provide the complete and true sense of our Lord's words - the 'true sense' as opposed to a literal translation being a characteristic of the Aramaic versions, as I understand, but not of the Greek versions, which tend to be more literal?

With respect to matters of primacy, I am still in the process of considering the evidence.

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Re: A problem for Aramaic Primacy? Matthew 28:18 - by Ilwain - 09-06-2014, 10:04 PM

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