12-16-2013, 08:20 AM
James E Snapp, Jr. said:
"The phrase, "As the Father has sent Me, so send I you" (in Matt 28:18) is (also) in John 20:21. Off the top of my head, I am not aware of any Greek MSS that have this in the text of Mt 28.
Why this is a problem that needs an answer if one can be given...and has the potential of proving that the Diatessaron of Tatian was not a translation of the Greek text.
1: The phrase seems to be in no known Greek or Latin NT text for Matthew 28:18. So, if the Greek Matthew comes from the Aramaic Matthew, and the phrase is original to the Aramaic Matthew's text, then how is it that this passage never got into the Greek, text, or at least never was passed down through the copies, across the board. I wonder now, if the other ancient translations of the GNT might have the phrase in them, or is it ONLY found in the Peshitta, and the Diatessaron.
2: The phrase is found in the Diatessaron as well...at least in the Arabic translation of the Aramaic DT. I raised the point that, if the Aramaic DT, has it, and it was (as thought by GPs) that it was translated from the Greek Gospels, why is it present? James said all the DT. witnesses would have to be checked...which he hadn't done...so, if some might know if this phrase exists outside of the ANT and the Arabic DT, then please speak up.
3: How can this be proven not to be an interpolation from John 20:21, where an almost exact wording of the phrase is found in the Aramaic text? Did Jesus say it exactly the same way on both occasions, and if so, do we see this type of thing being done by Him in other places, if this is not an interpolation. But, interpolation from what source? James Snapp, says it came in from the text of the Diatessaron, but with out any proof. Could it be so? And if not, why not? It has me wondering.
.
"The phrase, "As the Father has sent Me, so send I you" (in Matt 28:18) is (also) in John 20:21. Off the top of my head, I am not aware of any Greek MSS that have this in the text of Mt 28.
Why this is a problem that needs an answer if one can be given...and has the potential of proving that the Diatessaron of Tatian was not a translation of the Greek text.
1: The phrase seems to be in no known Greek or Latin NT text for Matthew 28:18. So, if the Greek Matthew comes from the Aramaic Matthew, and the phrase is original to the Aramaic Matthew's text, then how is it that this passage never got into the Greek, text, or at least never was passed down through the copies, across the board. I wonder now, if the other ancient translations of the GNT might have the phrase in them, or is it ONLY found in the Peshitta, and the Diatessaron.
2: The phrase is found in the Diatessaron as well...at least in the Arabic translation of the Aramaic DT. I raised the point that, if the Aramaic DT, has it, and it was (as thought by GPs) that it was translated from the Greek Gospels, why is it present? James said all the DT. witnesses would have to be checked...which he hadn't done...so, if some might know if this phrase exists outside of the ANT and the Arabic DT, then please speak up.
3: How can this be proven not to be an interpolation from John 20:21, where an almost exact wording of the phrase is found in the Aramaic text? Did Jesus say it exactly the same way on both occasions, and if so, do we see this type of thing being done by Him in other places, if this is not an interpolation. But, interpolation from what source? James Snapp, says it came in from the text of the Diatessaron, but with out any proof. Could it be so? And if not, why not? It has me wondering.
.