Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
GP vs AP
#1
I've been in some conversations with a few Greek scholars who of course believe that the Greek text was the 1st NT text. I'll post something one of them said, and hope to have some comment on it.

James E Snapp Jr. said:

"let?s return to the subject of those Aramaic phrases that pop up sporadically in the Gospels as words spoken by Jesus: it?s easy to see why a Syriac translator, unless very meticulous, would omit them if he was using a Greek exemplar in the course of creating a Syriac translation: they would be superfluous.

But, consider how things would stand from the opposite direction: why would a Greek translator add them if he was using a Syriac exemplar in the course of creating a Greek translation? After all, he would be translating *every* word.

So why for only these words would he interrupt the narrative to supply a parenthetical note explaining the meaning of the word?

A specific example: in Mark 7:34, in the Greek text, ?He said to him, ?Ephphatha,? that is, ?Be opened.?? Whereas the Peshitta, in Mark 7:34, says, ?He said to him, ?Be opened,? with no explanatory note.

Why would any Greek translator of a Syriac text that read, ?He said to him, ?Be opened,?? treat his exemplar in this way?

.
Reply


Messages In This Thread
GP vs AP - by Thirdwoe - 12-16-2013, 07:40 AM
Re: GP vs AP - by Thirdwoe - 12-16-2013, 07:53 AM
Re: GP vs AP - by Paul Younan - 12-16-2013, 02:16 PM
Re: GP vs AP - by Thirdwoe - 12-16-2013, 05:11 PM
Re: GP vs AP - by ScorpioSniper2 - 12-16-2013, 07:02 PM
Re: GP vs AP - by Thirdwoe - 12-16-2013, 09:09 PM
Re: GP vs AP - by ScorpioSniper2 - 12-17-2013, 02:57 AM

Forum Jump:


Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)