Underlying Semitic concept lost in Greek

[distazo]

Shalom Distazo,

I was trying to express how the Aramaic of the New Testament forms great continuity of thought with the Hebrew of the Old Testament. The words for "prophecy" and "prophet" in New Testament Aramaic and Old Testament Hebrew carry an underlying root meaning of "bubbling up"~"gushing up or forth", and so forth, while the Greek does not. The verbal and contextual continuity becomes enormous when you consider themes like living waters flowing out of our innermost being and a wise man's words being compared to deep waters and a fountain in Proverbs. When you translate into a totally non-Semitic language such as Greek all of these underlying root concepts and their corresponding contextual flow throughout the whole of Scripture get lost.

Hi Akhi!

I see what you mean. I agree that these languages share meaning and mean a lot more than in Greek. However, I wonder if there are a lot of samples, like here, where the writer was hinting to the root words, like the 3 or even 2 letter root. (If that is what you mean with the root).
For instance, the Semitic word for killing, would have a root word for cutting as in cutting meat in pieces. If these words became common for 'killing' instead of the original and ancient source of it, people hardly would consider the original meaning.

But maybe it is so. Just not quite convinced <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s -->