06-25-2013, 01:12 AM
'He said to them, "How then did Dawid in the spirit call him Master YHWH? For he said..."- Matthew 22:43, AENT
'He said to them, "Yet how does Dawid spiritually call him Marya? For he said..."- Aramaic Peshitta New Testament Translation: Messianic Version
"He words to them, How, in spirit, calls David him Lord for he words..."- Aramaic New Covenant
I am referring to the part translated variously as "in the spirit", "spiritually", and "in spirit". It is "b'rukh". Janet Magiera gives the clearest translation of that phrase, but Herb Jahn gives the most literal. "In the Spirit" in Aramaic would be "b'Rukha". Mark and Luke both say "b'Rukha d'Qudsha". I think you put these two together, it would be, "Yet how does Dawid spiritually [moved] by the Rukha d'Qudsha call Him MarYa?"
Why does everyone else translate "b'rukh" as "by the Spirit" in that verse. There is no definite article. This seems to be speaking of David being spiritually moved by the Holy Spirit. Jesus' point (that David was moved by the Spirit of God to call the Messiah the Lord Yahweh) is conveyed accurately by translating it as "by the Spirit", but it is more accurately (when speaking of only Matthew's wording) rendered as "spiritually". This is my opinion, but I am fine with being wrong! <!-- s
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'He said to them, "Yet how does Dawid spiritually call him Marya? For he said..."- Aramaic Peshitta New Testament Translation: Messianic Version
"He words to them, How, in spirit, calls David him Lord for he words..."- Aramaic New Covenant
I am referring to the part translated variously as "in the spirit", "spiritually", and "in spirit". It is "b'rukh". Janet Magiera gives the clearest translation of that phrase, but Herb Jahn gives the most literal. "In the Spirit" in Aramaic would be "b'Rukha". Mark and Luke both say "b'Rukha d'Qudsha". I think you put these two together, it would be, "Yet how does Dawid spiritually [moved] by the Rukha d'Qudsha call Him MarYa?"
Why does everyone else translate "b'rukh" as "by the Spirit" in that verse. There is no definite article. This seems to be speaking of David being spiritually moved by the Holy Spirit. Jesus' point (that David was moved by the Spirit of God to call the Messiah the Lord Yahweh) is conveyed accurately by translating it as "by the Spirit", but it is more accurately (when speaking of only Matthew's wording) rendered as "spiritually". This is my opinion, but I am fine with being wrong! <!-- s
--><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s -->