05-26-2013, 07:31 AM
Would like more details. Does the commentator believe that Paul's use of the phrase "homiliai kakai" only is a direct quotation from Menander? Or is it the complete sentence "evil communication corrupts good manners" ... I am suspecting it is the latter, since most 20th century translations place it in quotation marks (and the NIV includes a footnote attributing it likewise).
I'd like to know in what context the alleged quotation originally appeared. If Paulos is alluding to a well-known work it would make sense to want to know why he is doing so... what is he attempting to bring to mind for his readers? It is worth noting that the verse immediately preceding this one contains a quotation from Isaiah, such that it appears Paul is is using the one to answer the other, like this:
... If the dead do not rise, "Let us eat and drink, for tomorrow we die!" (Isaiah) Do not be deceived: "Evil company corrupts good habits." (Menander)
It is difficult to prove that a 5-word phrase is a quotation, but the way to begin proving it is to show intent, i.e.; why Paulos would include this quote at this point in his letter.
Even if it can be shown that it was an intentional quotation, it wouldn't prove that the letter was originally written in Greek, any more than a quotation from Isaiah would prove it must have been written in Hebrew.
Shlama,
Brian
I'd like to know in what context the alleged quotation originally appeared. If Paulos is alluding to a well-known work it would make sense to want to know why he is doing so... what is he attempting to bring to mind for his readers? It is worth noting that the verse immediately preceding this one contains a quotation from Isaiah, such that it appears Paul is is using the one to answer the other, like this:
... If the dead do not rise, "Let us eat and drink, for tomorrow we die!" (Isaiah) Do not be deceived: "Evil company corrupts good habits." (Menander)
It is difficult to prove that a 5-word phrase is a quotation, but the way to begin proving it is to show intent, i.e.; why Paulos would include this quote at this point in his letter.
Even if it can be shown that it was an intentional quotation, it wouldn't prove that the letter was originally written in Greek, any more than a quotation from Isaiah would prove it must have been written in Hebrew.
Shlama,
Brian