Would Paul write to greek communities in Aramaic?

[Sarah]

I'm loving the way Aramaic primacy solves so many issues of variations with the Greek text. However, I'm wondering why Paul, who was able to speak Greek, would write in Aramaic to communities in Greece--Corinth, Thessolonica? Is there anything that makes it IMPOSSIBLE that the Gospels and Revelation and the writings of the Disciples were Aramaic but the letters of Paul to Greek communities were originally Greek? Is it not possible that the apostles translated the gospels for the Greeks out of the original Aramaic and the letters of Paul for the Syrians from Greek and delivered them respectively with apostolic authority?