05-27-2020, 04:56 AM
@ Steve Caruso
"First, under the current model the Peshitta was not just a straight revision (of course under the model towards more Byzantine readings) but also a consolidation. The two OS MSS we have in many places disagree with each other more than they do the Peshitta."
Can someone explain the evidence behind this "model"? Steve said here that the Peshitta was not a straight revision but also a consolidation. Has this been demonstrated? Where is the evidence for this? Can someone (*anyone*) please support this for me.
"/Rbwly/ only occurs in Syr(s) in Mark 10:51 and John 20:16, and in doing so agrees with the Greek tradition, making the Peshitta's reading there another outlier."
What does Steve mean by "agrees with the Greek tradition"? No Greek manuscript reads "rabbouli" in either of these places, so how can he say that OSS (Old Syriac Sinaiticus) "agrees with the Greek tradition"?
"First, under the current model the Peshitta was not just a straight revision (of course under the model towards more Byzantine readings) but also a consolidation. The two OS MSS we have in many places disagree with each other more than they do the Peshitta."
Can someone explain the evidence behind this "model"? Steve said here that the Peshitta was not a straight revision but also a consolidation. Has this been demonstrated? Where is the evidence for this? Can someone (*anyone*) please support this for me.
"/Rbwly/ only occurs in Syr(s) in Mark 10:51 and John 20:16, and in doing so agrees with the Greek tradition, making the Peshitta's reading there another outlier."
What does Steve mean by "agrees with the Greek tradition"? No Greek manuscript reads "rabbouli" in either of these places, so how can he say that OSS (Old Syriac Sinaiticus) "agrees with the Greek tradition"?