Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
1 Th. 4:17 vs. 1 Co. 15:52
#1
First, I am new here. Thank you in advance for a warm welcome! My name is Brian and I am posting from the United States. Forgive me if I unintentionally forego the protocol and etiquette that you fine folks follow here.

I was surprised to notice that the terminology used in 1 Th. 4:17 P=xtn (we shall be snatched or seized) is very close in spelling to the Plxtn (we shall be transformed or changed) used in 1 Co. 15:52. There is only a one letter difference, but since I am a novice to the language I can't tell if that means the terms are actually related. I strongly believe both verses are speaking of the same event (most christians call it the rapture), but in both greek and latin they seem to use completely different words (the former implies being captured, the latter transformed). It would be a beautiful nugget of knowledge to discover the original language actually uses related terms to describe a single event.

Can anyone shed light on this?
Reply


Messages In This Thread
1 Th. 4:17 vs. 1 Co. 15:52 - by bknight - 09-17-2012, 02:28 PM
Re: 1 Th. 4:17 vs. 1 Co. 15:52 - by Burning one - 09-17-2012, 03:23 PM
Re: 1 Th. 4:17 vs. 1 Co. 15:52 - by Thirdwoe - 09-17-2012, 06:36 PM
Re: 1 Th. 4:17 vs. 1 Co. 15:52 - by bknight - 09-19-2012, 11:28 AM
Re: 1 Th. 4:17 vs. 1 Co. 15:52 - by angileena - 10-05-2012, 06:07 AM

Forum Jump:


Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)