09-05-2012, 02:45 AM
Seeker Wrote:I don't know if I'll be able to get past how Jesus didn't correct their ignorance (or even reject it) if ignorance truly was the reason why they asked such a question..
Hi again Seeker,
I think He did reject it by the substance of His answer. He did not mean that the blind man and his parents were sinless, as that would be impossible. But that neither his sins nor their sins were responsible in any way for his being born blind.
Contrast that with what the pharisees said in v34. They claimed he was "steeped in sin from birth," which is somewhat akin to your original question about the RC doctrine of "original sin." Christ clearly corrected that.
If the punishment for being born to sinful parents was such, we should all be blind.
Many eastern religions like Hinduism teach horrendous things like this, as being a result of "bad karma" from previous lives, and other such nonsense.
In contrast, the scriptures teach us that everything, even seemingly unfair circumstances, are ultimately for the purpose of God's glory.
+Shamasha Paul