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Why is this so?
Shalom Chaverim!

I've been debating with some people about the primacy of the Aramaic Peshitta NT and quoted with reference to. The interrogator told me that it is highlighted below in red and I simply got no response. How rebut this question? Does anyone know if what he said is true? If it is true, how to explain these things?

Thanks for the help.

But that's the thing beloved Yochanan: There are many who believe in the primacy Semitic Pehitta not believe that is a direct representative of the autographs. A study with emphasis on what I said above, this would change the whole way of thinking. For what peo ... against the Peshitta Aramaic is written there late. Prove the antiquity of Peshitta Aramaic and Greek independence it would be something wonderful would not it? Polysemy and puns really bring light on many difficult points of Greek, this is very normal because Aramaic was the language spoken (especially in the northern part of Palestine) by the Jews. I've been very busy, but as soon as I can I'll post some research I have done, because I really like the Aramaic, but Greek words in the Peshitta in the same places where they are found in the Greek manuscripts, the Latinisms, ie the Latin words , transliterated and adapted to the decline in Greek Greek manuscripts, and has witnessed very much against the Peshitta, because the Arameans copyists, rather than transliterating the Latin words as they are, simply transliteram Estrangelo for transliteration and even the Greek adaptation the Latin words, showing the dependence of the Greek manuscripts of the Peshitta. <!-- sSad --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/sad.gif" alt="Sad" title="Sad" /><!-- sSad --> Unfortunately has the flip side of love. But as soon as I have time post the article I'm writing here

Messages In This Thread
Why is this so? - by BenEfraym - 08-28-2012, 11:28 AM
Re: Why is this so? - by distazo - 08-28-2012, 10:05 PM
Re: Why is this so? - by Thirdwoe - 08-29-2012, 01:58 AM

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