08-10-2012, 07:01 PM
Ok, silly as this may seem, I do have one question: Is there definitive proof that Hebrews was written originally in Aramaic? (Because, I only found one strange thing in the Greek -- though I cannot say it helps Aramaic primacy.)
Notice how verse 16 disagrees with 8:10 -- it also disagrees with Jeremiah 31:33 (Masoretic Text and Peshitta OT)
But...both verses are consistent in the Peshitta, unlike the disagreement in the Greek.
(And I already do know about Hebrews 3:1 (kahna and kumrea) and Hebrews 8:11 variants (fellow citizen or neighbor) -- but I feel like the Greek primacist can make up [good] reasons about those two verses.)
**Logically, Hebrews should have been written in Aramaic, BUT...one needs proof to defend that position.** So...is there definitive proof that Hebrews was written originally in Aramaic?
GREEK book of Hebrews Wrote:Hebrews 8:10 Wrote:?For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel.
After those days,? says the Lord;
?I will put my laws into their mind(s),
I will also write them on their heart(s).Hebrews 10:16 Wrote:?This is the covenant that I will make with them:
?After those days,? says the Lord,
?I will put my laws on their heart(s),
I will also write them on their mind(s);?
Notice how verse 16 disagrees with 8:10 -- it also disagrees with Jeremiah 31:33 (Masoretic Text and Peshitta OT)
But...both verses are consistent in the Peshitta, unlike the disagreement in the Greek.
(And I already do know about Hebrews 3:1 (kahna and kumrea) and Hebrews 8:11 variants (fellow citizen or neighbor) -- but I feel like the Greek primacist can make up [good] reasons about those two verses.)
**Logically, Hebrews should have been written in Aramaic, BUT...one needs proof to defend that position.** So...is there definitive proof that Hebrews was written originally in Aramaic?