06-20-2012, 12:15 AM
I'm new here. This may have already been discussed somewhere on the forum...
The phrase "Kingdom of heaven" occurs 32 times in the Scriptures...ALL of these are in the Gospel of Matthew. One is attributed to John the Baptist in chapter 3:2 , another to the disciples, and the remaining 30 to Yeshua. The other three gospels NEVER use this term. They refer to the "Kingdom of God". It would seem pretty obvious that Matthew is using a substitute word heaven in place of God. However there is a snag. Matthew does in fact use the phrase "kingdom of God" on four occasions. It would seem reasonable that a substitution of heaven in place of God would be universal in the gospel...it is not. I would suggest that Kingdom of heaven is in fact a substitution not for Kingdom of God but for Kingdom of Yahweh. The four occasions where Yeshua refers to Kingdom of God probably were exactly that..the Kingdom of Elohim. I am a bit surprised that a rigorous return to "original language", presumably Aramaic, does not reflect this substitution, which at least would have occurred in the translation to Greek. It is inconceivable to me that Yeshua would have made frequent reference to the Kingdom of heaven which only Matthew reported and the other three gospel writers missed. Comments?
Secondly, when Yeshua stands before the High priest he indicates in the gospel of Matthew that "You will see the Son of man sitting at the right hand of Power" (matt 26:64). Again the other gospels refer to right hand of God; presumably "Power" is yet another substitute word for Yahweh. We know that Psalms 110:1 from which Yeshua is quoting actually provides the personal name of God (Yahweh) which resulted in the blasphemy charge against Yeshua being confirmed. The Talmud indicates a blasphemer must actually pronounce the name of God "according to the letters" to be convicted of blasphemy (and receive the death sentence)
The phrase "Kingdom of heaven" occurs 32 times in the Scriptures...ALL of these are in the Gospel of Matthew. One is attributed to John the Baptist in chapter 3:2 , another to the disciples, and the remaining 30 to Yeshua. The other three gospels NEVER use this term. They refer to the "Kingdom of God". It would seem pretty obvious that Matthew is using a substitute word heaven in place of God. However there is a snag. Matthew does in fact use the phrase "kingdom of God" on four occasions. It would seem reasonable that a substitution of heaven in place of God would be universal in the gospel...it is not. I would suggest that Kingdom of heaven is in fact a substitution not for Kingdom of God but for Kingdom of Yahweh. The four occasions where Yeshua refers to Kingdom of God probably were exactly that..the Kingdom of Elohim. I am a bit surprised that a rigorous return to "original language", presumably Aramaic, does not reflect this substitution, which at least would have occurred in the translation to Greek. It is inconceivable to me that Yeshua would have made frequent reference to the Kingdom of heaven which only Matthew reported and the other three gospel writers missed. Comments?
Secondly, when Yeshua stands before the High priest he indicates in the gospel of Matthew that "You will see the Son of man sitting at the right hand of Power" (matt 26:64). Again the other gospels refer to right hand of God; presumably "Power" is yet another substitute word for Yahweh. We know that Psalms 110:1 from which Yeshua is quoting actually provides the personal name of God (Yahweh) which resulted in the blasphemy charge against Yeshua being confirmed. The Talmud indicates a blasphemer must actually pronounce the name of God "according to the letters" to be convicted of blasphemy (and receive the death sentence)