07-31-2012, 03:30 PM
Paul Younan Wrote:Hi DC.
It can be justified to an extent. It is gentile in general, so it can be applied to any ethnic group. It appears the translators took liberty to translate it to "Greek" where the context made sense for them to do so. It wound up making almost everyone a Greek, though, even in areas like Samaria and Syria, which is excessive.
In other places they left it as generic gentile. Note how this strengthens our theory about an underlying Aramaic source to these documents.
+Shamasha
Ok, for me, Aramaic primacy is settled for this book, because of the Alexandrian variant (1:23) and because apostle Paul did not use 'yawnaya' (Greek / Hellenist) in 1 Cor. 1:22-23;10:32 like he did in Romans and Colossians.
Though, I feel like 1 Cor. 13:3 (I might boast, I might burn, I will burn, to be burned) are not sufficient to 'convert' a Greek primacist. (Step into their shoes for like a minute) The variations can be explained by scribal errors, deliberate modifications. The last reading can be explained that there was a revision 'so-it-makes-sense' (like [Byz.] manuscript 1505 reading 'it might be burned'.
I don't know if I am in error, may someone please correct me if I am wrong.
Does 1 Cor. 13:3 from the Aramaic primacy belief provide evidence to rattle the Greek primacist?