01-15-2012, 04:34 PM
Come on Thirdwoe, i've stated in my previous posts that i have already extensively investigated Aramaic primacy before i undertook translating the Greek, for seven years. So why would I not have heard of this 'Western Five" scenario.
Andrew Gabriel Roth, already had me up to speed on this "speculated theory" of Aramaic primacy, it doesn't get more knowledgeable than him. And none of his assertions proved Aramaic privacy to me. He has hundreds of detailed notes of ancient biblical history in his AENT.
That "Western Five" situation works against the Aramaic assertions when one acknowledges the true facts. The Panin text shows also the correct order of the books of the New Testament, which as it so happens clearly reveals that Peter and John wrote those letters directly after ACTS, which means they should have been delivered immediately to the Eastern Aramaic lands "IF" they had been addressed to the Aramaic speaking peoples, or else why did they not get them if they were written before the other epistles they received if the panin text shows that they were written before the others.
Seeing as the rest of the epistles which were written after, and those made it there, why not the western five", the books written later made it, so why did the Greeks end up with them, because it was written to the GREEKS and got delivered to them, that's why, very simple. And another thing disproving "The theory of Aramaic primacy" is that all your texts in one way or another have the same problems and variations as one or other of the Greek text family lines, You guys claim the that Aramaic was written earlier, how could they be if they all have the same problems as the Greek texts, just as you are proving right now by comparing the Panin text and confirming disparity. If all I have to do is prove to you that the Panin text is indeed flawless, and you say that you can see disagreement already between the Panin and the Eastern Aramaic, then if the Panin text is perfect (Which it is) then that proves your "Holy Grail" Eastern Aramaic text has the same flaws as the Greek, which means it was copied from the faulty Greek texts, which you guessed it, means the Aramaic was done later and copied from the Greek, and as can be seen by all the bad word choices in the Aramaic, Paul or someone elite nominated by him clearly had no hand in doing the Aramaic texts.
You cannot reasonably explain why those western five never made it to the Aramaic lands and still expect us to believe Aramaic primacy. I will now validate my assertion - If i write an important spiritual writing to God's chosen in China and it has been addressed directly to them, then clearly if it was first and foremost for the beloved Chinese believers and "addressed specifically to them" then i will be jumping on a plane as soon as i have finished writing it and taking it straight to them or sending it through priority registered post, right! So how come the "western five" never got to there destination and the Greeks got it first, did they intercept and ambush the apostles and steal it off them?? <!-- s:lookround: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/lookround.gif" alt=":lookround:" title="Look Round" /><!-- s:lookround: --> LOL
The Aramaic was written quite a while after the Greek epistles, and as evidenced by the text they were not penned by Paul or anyone endorsed by him to do it, because it wasn't written to Greeks.
How do the eastern Aramaic church elders expect us to believe that it got delivered by the apostles, that could easily be a pride thing to make themselves superior to other Christian denominations, and if it was true, that doesn't mean it was written to them first does it. The Aramaic is not validated by astronomically astounding astonishing amazing miraculous mathematics, but the Greek is. The mathematics also only work to tie the Old Testament to the New if it calculates the Greek, not the Aramaic, so sorry guys, end of Aramaic primacy!! <!-- s
tupid: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/withstupid.gif" alt="tupid:" title="Stupid" /><!-- stupid: -->
And by the way Thirdwoe, you shouldn't be making condescending comments about Panins text, you call it a reconstructed text, well of course it is, all the texts and including the Aramaic got corrupted, God's mathematics was the only way possible to do the job, and "reconstruction" was absolutely necessary. You speak about "reconstruction" with a derogatory tone, why do you think you guys have been comparing the Aramaic texts for "years" because they need reconstructing, thats why, and why do they need reconstructing, because they were written a long time after the Greek, and thus copied corrupted Greek texts, as evidenced by all the similar deletions and additions that mimic one or other of the Greek texts. <!-- s
--><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/poketoungeb.gif" alt="" title="Poke Tounge" /><!-- s -->
Andrew Gabriel Roth, already had me up to speed on this "speculated theory" of Aramaic primacy, it doesn't get more knowledgeable than him. And none of his assertions proved Aramaic privacy to me. He has hundreds of detailed notes of ancient biblical history in his AENT.
That "Western Five" situation works against the Aramaic assertions when one acknowledges the true facts. The Panin text shows also the correct order of the books of the New Testament, which as it so happens clearly reveals that Peter and John wrote those letters directly after ACTS, which means they should have been delivered immediately to the Eastern Aramaic lands "IF" they had been addressed to the Aramaic speaking peoples, or else why did they not get them if they were written before the other epistles they received if the panin text shows that they were written before the others.
Seeing as the rest of the epistles which were written after, and those made it there, why not the western five", the books written later made it, so why did the Greeks end up with them, because it was written to the GREEKS and got delivered to them, that's why, very simple. And another thing disproving "The theory of Aramaic primacy" is that all your texts in one way or another have the same problems and variations as one or other of the Greek text family lines, You guys claim the that Aramaic was written earlier, how could they be if they all have the same problems as the Greek texts, just as you are proving right now by comparing the Panin text and confirming disparity. If all I have to do is prove to you that the Panin text is indeed flawless, and you say that you can see disagreement already between the Panin and the Eastern Aramaic, then if the Panin text is perfect (Which it is) then that proves your "Holy Grail" Eastern Aramaic text has the same flaws as the Greek, which means it was copied from the faulty Greek texts, which you guessed it, means the Aramaic was done later and copied from the Greek, and as can be seen by all the bad word choices in the Aramaic, Paul or someone elite nominated by him clearly had no hand in doing the Aramaic texts.
You cannot reasonably explain why those western five never made it to the Aramaic lands and still expect us to believe Aramaic primacy. I will now validate my assertion - If i write an important spiritual writing to God's chosen in China and it has been addressed directly to them, then clearly if it was first and foremost for the beloved Chinese believers and "addressed specifically to them" then i will be jumping on a plane as soon as i have finished writing it and taking it straight to them or sending it through priority registered post, right! So how come the "western five" never got to there destination and the Greeks got it first, did they intercept and ambush the apostles and steal it off them?? <!-- s:lookround: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/lookround.gif" alt=":lookround:" title="Look Round" /><!-- s:lookround: --> LOL
The Aramaic was written quite a while after the Greek epistles, and as evidenced by the text they were not penned by Paul or anyone endorsed by him to do it, because it wasn't written to Greeks.
How do the eastern Aramaic church elders expect us to believe that it got delivered by the apostles, that could easily be a pride thing to make themselves superior to other Christian denominations, and if it was true, that doesn't mean it was written to them first does it. The Aramaic is not validated by astronomically astounding astonishing amazing miraculous mathematics, but the Greek is. The mathematics also only work to tie the Old Testament to the New if it calculates the Greek, not the Aramaic, so sorry guys, end of Aramaic primacy!! <!-- s
tupid: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/withstupid.gif" alt="tupid:" title="Stupid" /><!-- stupid: --> And by the way Thirdwoe, you shouldn't be making condescending comments about Panins text, you call it a reconstructed text, well of course it is, all the texts and including the Aramaic got corrupted, God's mathematics was the only way possible to do the job, and "reconstruction" was absolutely necessary. You speak about "reconstruction" with a derogatory tone, why do you think you guys have been comparing the Aramaic texts for "years" because they need reconstructing, thats why, and why do they need reconstructing, because they were written a long time after the Greek, and thus copied corrupted Greek texts, as evidenced by all the similar deletions and additions that mimic one or other of the Greek texts. <!-- s
--><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/poketoungeb.gif" alt="" title="Poke Tounge" /><!-- s -->