11-13-2011, 01:18 PM
Something which I several times have seen, is that the Peshitta has some idiom to double a verb which is an idiomatic emphasis .
I don't know a western equivalent but in French where we have the idiom CO?TE QUE CO?TE which means 'it costs what it costs=at ANY cost...' (aproximately)
(e.g. Murdock shows this distintion)
e.g. 2 corinthians 8:19
likewise had been expressly chosen by the churches...
Litterally 'choosing chosen..'
2 Corinthians 8:8
not as I commanding command you... (I did not command you expressly)
Or in JOhn 13:29
Charging he charged him to... (He charged him expressly to...)
The Greek has no such idiom.
HOwever, it tries to in for instance in Acts 5: 28
To charge you, we charged you not to...
Now as for verbs, this also happens with nouns.
As in 1 Timothy 1:3
"That you would to command -man man- to...'
(That you would command some men...)
Acts 2:4
They began to speak with language language (Greek heteros glossais).
"They begon to speak several languages...
So it looks like the Greek, normally, does not have this idiomatic construction but the Aramaic has.
Now I have the following question:
Are there more cases of such idiomatic constructions in the Peshitta and is this a good case for primacy as well?
I don't know a western equivalent but in French where we have the idiom CO?TE QUE CO?TE which means 'it costs what it costs=at ANY cost...' (aproximately)
(e.g. Murdock shows this distintion)
e.g. 2 corinthians 8:19
likewise had been expressly chosen by the churches...
Litterally 'choosing chosen..'
2 Corinthians 8:8
not as I commanding command you... (I did not command you expressly)
Or in JOhn 13:29
Charging he charged him to... (He charged him expressly to...)
The Greek has no such idiom.
HOwever, it tries to in for instance in Acts 5: 28
To charge you, we charged you not to...
Now as for verbs, this also happens with nouns.
As in 1 Timothy 1:3
"That you would to command -man man- to...'
(That you would command some men...)
Acts 2:4
They began to speak with language language (Greek heteros glossais).
"They begon to speak several languages...
So it looks like the Greek, normally, does not have this idiomatic construction but the Aramaic has.
Now I have the following question:
Are there more cases of such idiomatic constructions in the Peshitta and is this a good case for primacy as well?