07-21-2011, 04:30 AM
I Galatians chapter 1 and 1 Corinthians 6 (and other places I'm sure) The peshitta reads "our Lord" whilst the greek texts read "the Lord".
I think this is right , though I stand to be corrected.
If all these references are to Jesus then I think "our Lord" makes more sense, possibly. Especially in the light of psalm 110.
The Lord said to my Lord.....
Any thoughts anyone?
I think this is right , though I stand to be corrected.
If all these references are to Jesus then I think "our Lord" makes more sense, possibly. Especially in the light of psalm 110.
The Lord said to my Lord.....
Any thoughts anyone?