01-05-2011, 05:12 PM
Hello Stephen,
Sorry for the late reply. I have to agree with you about Western Four. There are certain things in 2nd Peter, 2nd John, 3rd John, and Jude that raises questions whether they were written by Apostles of Yeshua Mshikha. But Revelation is where I think differently. This is because of some of prophecies in it. As you know, there is a high possibility that "666" was referring to Neron Caesar (Nero). And in Crawford Revelation, we see Yukhanan Shlikha was banished to Patmos by Nero. Before I get into this subject, I have a question about Revelation in Harklean Version, Stephen.
Was Revelation originally part of Philoxenian and Harklean version? Or was it translated later from Greek? Here is an information from this book (<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.archive.org/details/newtestamentino00west">http://www.archive.org/details/newtestamentino00west</a><!-- m -->) that I found interesting. In Page 39, We see Philoxenian/Harklean Version . Here is the information.
"The Philoxenian or Harclean version, so called from its patron Philoxenus, Monophysite bishop of Mabug (Hierapolis), in Eastern Syria (488-518), and from Thomas of Harkel, a subsequent editor, who was likewise a Monophysite bishop of Mabug. It is "probably the most servile version of Scripture ever made" (Scrivener). It is
based upon the Peshito, and forces it into rigorous conformity with the letter of the Greek at the expense of the spirit. It dates from A.D. 508, and was revised by Thomas of Harkel, 616. It contains the whole New Testament, except the Apocalypse, and is therefore more complete than the Peshito, which omits four Epistles besides. The
only edition of the Philoxenian is that of Joseph White, printed by the Clarendon Press, Oxford, 1778-1803, 4 vols. 4to. Bernstein has published the Gospel of John (Leips. 1853)."
I believe Joseph White thought that Philoxenian and Harklean version were one and the same. What he published was actually Harklean version. Not Philoxenian Version. But it says it contains whole New testament except Apocalypse. So my question is Was Apocalypse part of Philoxenian Version and the early Harklean Version? or was it translated from greek later? I am sure you can clear my doubts.
Back to Revelation, One of the interesting points about Revelation is Revelation 17:10 (Lamsa Translation) - "And there are seven kings, of whom five have
fallen and one "is" and the other has not yet come; and when he comes he shall continue only for a short time."
Bauscher points out that Nero was the sixth "Caesar." Julius "Caesar" was the first "Caesar." But after that, Augustus Caesar (First Emperor of Roman Empire and Second Caesar), Tiberius, Caligula, Claudius, and Nero. We read that seventh has not yet come. And When he comes he shall continue only for a short time. Seventh was Galba. he only ruled Roman Empire for 6 to 7 months.
Revelation 17:11 (Lamsa) - "And the wild beast that was, and no longer is, even he is the eighth and is one of the seven "destined" to be
destroyed." After Galba, Otho became Eighth Caesar of Rome. Otho only ruled upto 3 months. After that, he "killed himself."
Dave Bauscher points out that in Thayer?s Greek-English Lexicon under the entry for laodikeia - ?Laodicea? documents that Laodicea, Colossae and
Hierapolis were destroyed by an earthquake in AD 66 . Laodicea was not rebuilt until 120 years later by Marcus Aurelius (Nicknamed Caracalla). This little known fact is extensively documented by Bishop Lightfoot in His commentary on Colossians and Philemon, pp 274- 300."
What do you think about it, Stephen? I am interested in hearing your opinions about it.
Sorry for the late reply. I have to agree with you about Western Four. There are certain things in 2nd Peter, 2nd John, 3rd John, and Jude that raises questions whether they were written by Apostles of Yeshua Mshikha. But Revelation is where I think differently. This is because of some of prophecies in it. As you know, there is a high possibility that "666" was referring to Neron Caesar (Nero). And in Crawford Revelation, we see Yukhanan Shlikha was banished to Patmos by Nero. Before I get into this subject, I have a question about Revelation in Harklean Version, Stephen.
Was Revelation originally part of Philoxenian and Harklean version? Or was it translated later from Greek? Here is an information from this book (<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.archive.org/details/newtestamentino00west">http://www.archive.org/details/newtestamentino00west</a><!-- m -->) that I found interesting. In Page 39, We see Philoxenian/Harklean Version . Here is the information.
"The Philoxenian or Harclean version, so called from its patron Philoxenus, Monophysite bishop of Mabug (Hierapolis), in Eastern Syria (488-518), and from Thomas of Harkel, a subsequent editor, who was likewise a Monophysite bishop of Mabug. It is "probably the most servile version of Scripture ever made" (Scrivener). It is
based upon the Peshito, and forces it into rigorous conformity with the letter of the Greek at the expense of the spirit. It dates from A.D. 508, and was revised by Thomas of Harkel, 616. It contains the whole New Testament, except the Apocalypse, and is therefore more complete than the Peshito, which omits four Epistles besides. The
only edition of the Philoxenian is that of Joseph White, printed by the Clarendon Press, Oxford, 1778-1803, 4 vols. 4to. Bernstein has published the Gospel of John (Leips. 1853)."
I believe Joseph White thought that Philoxenian and Harklean version were one and the same. What he published was actually Harklean version. Not Philoxenian Version. But it says it contains whole New testament except Apocalypse. So my question is Was Apocalypse part of Philoxenian Version and the early Harklean Version? or was it translated from greek later? I am sure you can clear my doubts.
Back to Revelation, One of the interesting points about Revelation is Revelation 17:10 (Lamsa Translation) - "And there are seven kings, of whom five have
fallen and one "is" and the other has not yet come; and when he comes he shall continue only for a short time."
Bauscher points out that Nero was the sixth "Caesar." Julius "Caesar" was the first "Caesar." But after that, Augustus Caesar (First Emperor of Roman Empire and Second Caesar), Tiberius, Caligula, Claudius, and Nero. We read that seventh has not yet come. And When he comes he shall continue only for a short time. Seventh was Galba. he only ruled Roman Empire for 6 to 7 months.
Revelation 17:11 (Lamsa) - "And the wild beast that was, and no longer is, even he is the eighth and is one of the seven "destined" to be
destroyed." After Galba, Otho became Eighth Caesar of Rome. Otho only ruled upto 3 months. After that, he "killed himself."
Dave Bauscher points out that in Thayer?s Greek-English Lexicon under the entry for laodikeia - ?Laodicea? documents that Laodicea, Colossae and
Hierapolis were destroyed by an earthquake in AD 66 . Laodicea was not rebuilt until 120 years later by Marcus Aurelius (Nicknamed Caracalla). This little known fact is extensively documented by Bishop Lightfoot in His commentary on Colossians and Philemon, pp 274- 300."
What do you think about it, Stephen? I am interested in hearing your opinions about it.