12-16-2010, 05:26 PM
That's the implication. It's interesting though the term juggling that was going on even in the early times. How is it that one source says Aramaean and another says Grecian? The divergence is quite shocking. But there's also some sense in Jerome when he interprets this word as gentili. So you can see the same processes which we find in this era were happening in the early centuries. Perhaps Jerome understood the divergence that had arisen from the Greek and Aramaic texts; in the same manner he resolves the contradiction in the Greek of Mark 7:26. Here's the question now: is there any evidence (besides Acts 16:1) that Timothy's father was one or the other?