Armaya or Aramaya?

[Aaron S]

If I understand what is written in Payne-Smith, the dichotomy of Armaya and Aramaya developed out of the advent of Mashiyach, that is to say, the connotation of 'pagan' toward Armaya developed later (than the writing of the book of the Acts, etc.). Understand that Murdock was not a Peshitta primacist and thusly his work is swayed at some times like this verse. Because the AENT is based partly on Murdock's work, this reading has been partly carried into Roth's work.

I hope that clears up the misunderstanding.