11-25-2010, 02:23 PM
For those who think that (mor-yo`) is the unique and distinct personal name for YHWH, how do you reconcile that with Matthew 22:43-45; where it is used three times, but only once in reference to YHWH?
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And how do you reconcile the fact that Mark 12:37 and Luke 20:44 both use (mory) "my-lord" in the same instance where Matthew used (mor-yo`) in Matthew 22:45? In other words, if (mor-yo`) is so unique, why is it used interchangeably with (mory)?
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And how do you reconcile the fact that Mark 12:37 and Luke 20:44 both use (mory) "my-lord" in the same instance where Matthew used (mor-yo`) in Matthew 22:45? In other words, if (mor-yo`) is so unique, why is it used interchangeably with (mory)?
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