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"I AM" Exodus 3.14 and Jhon 8:24/8:58
#19
I believe it is explained thus:
It is called the imperfect tense which can be either rendered (as we understand it) to the present or future tense.
It is said that the context here allows for either translation, and perhaps that both are intended in its meaning.
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Re: "I AM" Exodus 3.14 and Jhon 8:24/8:58 - by Aaron S - 05-09-2011, 03:09 AM

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