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Luke 9:60 Mata=village?
distazo Wrote:
Mshikhaya Wrote:Well, "matha" or village does not have a "yodh" consonant in its spelling or pronunciation so I don't see how it could mean that.

Thank you so much for your comments.

Forgive me my ignorance. I'm not well known with semitic grammar, I just know that they did not write vowels but that the process of adding vowels was something from the 2nd century on Estrangelo script?

Is it possible that a scribe simply did not know because of this? (The talmud, describes a law where villages were responsable for burrying their dead)

And what exactly does it imply that there is no 'jodh' consonant?

You're very welcome, akh.

No need to apologize. We're all ignortant in one thing or another. We all learn everyday.

You're correct in that the short vowel points were a later invention but the consonants, "yodh" and "waw" also served as long vowels even before the invention of diacritical markings.

The spelling of "dead" or meetha has a "yodh" consonant that functions as a long vowel in this word and not a consonant hence being known as a semi-vowel. The spelling of "maatha" or village, however, does not have a "yodh" in its spelling.

Messages In This Thread
Luke 9:60 Mata=village? - by distazo - 05-02-2010, 09:18 PM
Re: Luke 9:60 Mata=village? - by konway87 - 05-05-2010, 06:35 PM
Re: Luke 9:60 Mata=village? - by Mshikhaya - 05-05-2010, 09:14 PM
Re: Luke 9:60 Mata=village? - by distazo - 05-06-2010, 05:59 PM
Re: Luke 9:60 Mata=village? - by Mshikhaya - 05-06-2010, 06:44 PM

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