05-06-2010, 05:59 PM
Mshikhaya Wrote:Well, "matha" or village does not have a "yodh" consonant in its spelling or pronunciation so I don't see how it could mean that.
Thank you so much for your comments.
Forgive me my ignorance. I'm not well known with semitic grammar, I just know that they did not write vowels but that the process of adding vowels was something from the 2nd century on Estrangelo script?
Is it possible that a scribe simply did not know because of this? (The talmud, describes a law where villages were responsable for burrying their dead)
And what exactly does it imply that there is no 'jodh' consonant?