02-03-2010, 03:55 PM
I doubt it is a grammatical rule, but instead just an error in pointing. On a bit of a side note, I have found there to be three variant spellings for Israel. And not with vowel pointing, but with the "aleph" (`). Two alephs in the first, one in the second, and none in the third.
`iys:ro`yel (699)
`iys:ro:yel (700)
yis:ro:yel (706)
There is also "bo:bel" and "bo:beyl". These examples are both variants with the matres lectionis, which I think some refer to as "defective" when they are missing them. It happens quite often in Hebrew text, and apparently some in the Peshitta as well.
`iys:ro`yel (699)
`iys:ro:yel (700)
yis:ro:yel (706)
There is also "bo:bel" and "bo:beyl". These examples are both variants with the matres lectionis, which I think some refer to as "defective" when they are missing them. It happens quite often in Hebrew text, and apparently some in the Peshitta as well.